Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are details for questions here on Quora so limited? I have an account here on Quora and Yahoo Answers. I like discussing different subjects.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What does success really mean to you? Is it about happiness, money, or something else?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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